D1 2023: a 55-mark D1, hard work!


One of us took the exam as a benchmarker and made a few notes in the D1 paper that we share below. Note that these are just a few brief notes, and have not been reviewed yet by colleague tutor. We will post more extensive answers later, after our internal review. [Update 8/3: our complete answer is added at the end]

Today's D1 was worth an unprecedented total of 55 marks, distributed over 2 parts with a 30 minute break in between:
  • D1-1 had 3 questions, for a total of 27 marks, and had to be done from 9:30-11:05. 
  • D1-2 also had 3 questions, for a total of 28 marks, and had to be done from 11:35-13:15.
The paper had to be taken fully from the screen in Wiseflow - nothing was printable. As in previous years, the pdf of the paper could be viewed side-by-side with the editor, without annotation possibility; or in one or more separate tabs, with annotation possibility - when I did the paper as a benchmarker today, I copied the D1 questions in the editor to have them in the same field-of-view as my answer and to be able to annotate them while staying in the same window.

The online availability of legal texts (EPO legal texts esp. GL/EPO, Nat.Law Tables, G-decisions, Euro-PCT Guide; PCT Applicant's Guide; PCT Treaty) was very convenient (even though I did not really used the search function in those). However, I personally strongly prefer personalized, well-annotated printed material and good reference books (see our webshop ;)) and I did not use the eGuide but my printed copy of the pdf-version of the PCT Applicant's Guide and its keyword index.

As last year, no calendars were given with the exam paper, but candidates had to bring their own lists of Saturdays and Sundays and had to check EPO closure dates in the OJ. 

I considered the following legal basis for my answers (not exhaustive):

D1-1:

Q.1: EPC Art. 76(1), 123(2), G 1/05 (or G 1/06), G 1/09, Art. 56

Q.2: PCT Art. 8(1), R.4.10; R.26bis.2; R.91.1&2

Q.3: EPC ADA2022; renewal fees, national grace period – Nat.Law. VI.A (DE); infringement; Art.105a, opposition

D1-2:

Q.4: EPC Art. 107, Rule 101(2), G 1/12

Q.5: PCT R.26.2, 26.5, Art. 14(1); PCT Art. 24(2)/25, Art. 48(2) “excuse” ; Rule 58 EPC, Art. 122 EPC

Q.6: EPC Art. 123(2), 123(3); 54(3), 54(4); GL H-V, 7.1 & 7.2

 

We look forward to your comments!

Comments are welcome in any official EPO language, not just English. So, comments in German and French are also very welcome!

Please do not post your comments anonymously - it is allowed, but it makes responding more difficult and rather clumsy ("Dear Mr/Mrs/Ms Anonymous of 07-03-2023 20:23"), whereas using your real name or a nickname is more personal, more interesting and makes a more attractive conversation. You do not need to log in or make an account - it is OK to just put your (nick) name at the end of your post.

NB: for D2 comments, please refer to our D2 2023 blog; for first impressions and general comments to D 2023, see here


Annex 1 - added 8 March 10:00

Our answers are given below. The answers use full-sentence arguments for clarity - an actual exam answer could be more concise.

Note that there may be errors or omissions in our answers; it may also happen that we expand more on certain topics than expected by the Exam Committee. For the expected answer, we will all need to wait for the Examiner's Report, which usually becomes available in summer (2022: 6 July; 2021: 19 June).

Please feel free to give your comments, to correct us where wrong, and to supplement us where we have gaps. We may update our answer based on your feedback. Please do not post your comments anonymously.

Diane, Gregory, Jelle, Roel


QUESTION 1 (10 MARKS)

Answer

(a) Can valid patents be obtained for DIV1 and DIV2 and what should be done?

DIV1:

DIV1 claims and describes only feature D

DIV1's claim to D extends beyond EP-A as filed as feature B was indispensible for the first invention, so taking just D and not B+D violates essentiality test, and thus violates Art,. 76(1) (gold standard, Guidelines H-V, 3.1 mut.mut).

As DIV1 only describes D, amending to include B (to B+D) would extend subject-mater beyond divisional as filed [Art. 123(2), G 1/05]

So, cannot keep the claim to just D

Can also not amend to B+D

Therefore no valid patent can be obtained for DIV1.

 

DIV2:

DIV2 claims and describes B+D+F (F optional).

B+D is described in EP-A as solution of the 1st invention.

Optional feature F is described in combination with the 2nd invention, not the first.

So combination B+D+F is not directly and unambiguously disclosed and not allowed.

DIV2 therefore contains subject matter beyond the content of the parent application, which is not allowed under Art. 76(1). [G 1/06]

 

The EPO will invite the applicant to remove the added subject matter [GL-C-IX, 1.4]; if not removed, the application will be refused under A 97(2).

 

Therefore, optional feature F should be removed in response to the invitation [G 1/06]

This is allowed as F is listed as optional

The claim and description are thus amended to just the second solution of the first invention of EP-A, B+D.

This amendment repairs Art.76(1) wrt EP-A and satisfies Art.123(2) wrt DIV2 as filed

 

So amend to B+D after receipt of the search report

And bring the description into conformity - GL F-IV, 4

 

A claim to B+D is novel [A 54(1)], as only B+C is known from the prior art.

An alternative solution supports inventive step [A 56] and

a valid patent can be obtained for DIV2.

 

(b)  Can applicant A still prosecute invention E+F and what should be done?

Yes

E+F is only described and claimed in EP-A, but not disclosed in DIV-1 and DIV-2. Introducing E+F in DIV-1 or DIV-2 would violate Art.123(2).

To obtain protection for E+F, a new divisional should be filed from EP-A.

 

EP-A has been refused, but remains pending during 2m appeal period of Art 108 – G 1/09, R.36(1) -; not needed to file an appeal.

So until 3/1/2023 + 10d (R 126(2) -> 13/1/2023 + 2m -> 13/3/2023 (Mon).

File a new divisional before this date directed to the second invention, describing and claiming E+F [A 76; R36(1)]

Pay relevant fees within applicable time limits.

 

QUESTION 2 (10 MARKS)
Answer

(a) Is priority claim considered to have been made for purposes of procedure under the PCT?

Yes, the priority claim is considered to have been made.

 

Under the PCT, a priority claim must be made in acc Art. 4 Paris Conv – Art. 8 PCT – and the priority claim must state the date of filing, number of the earlier application and State of filing –Art. 8, R 4.10 (a).

The date of filing and State have been provided and satisfy the requirements:

PCT-B was filed within the priority period US-B, which expired on

9/7/2021 + 12m [Art 8 PCT; Art 4C(1) PC]  -> 9/7/22 (Sat) extended to 11/7/ 22 [R 80.5; R 2.4]

USA is a Paris Convention State

Also, a number was given, even though erroneous.

 

The priority document has been supplied and the EPO as rO checks the indications in the prio doc against those in the priority declaration and issued to an invitation to correct under R 26bis.2(a) due to the noted inconsistency.

This is the only deficiency in the priority claim.

 

The time limit to respond was the later of 4 months from PCT filing date or 16m from earliest priority – R 26bis.1a  -, which has expired on 9/1/22 (latest of 9/7/21 + 16m -> 9/11/22 and 5/5/22 + 4M -> 5/9/22)

 

The failure to correct the inconsistent indication (as only deficiency) does not lead to the priority claim being considered void in the international phase – R 26bis.2(c)(ii).

The priority date therefore remains 9/7/2021 for the calculation of time limits in the international phase.

 

(b) Last day to file a demand for international preliminary examination:

Time limit to file the demand is the later of 3m from transmtittal of the ISR or 22m from priority - R. 54bis.1(a):

- 12/07/2022+ 3m [R 80.2] -> 12/10/2022 (Wed)

- 9/7/2021 + 22m -> 9/5/2023 (Tue)

 

9 May 2023 is later and that is the last day to file the demand.

 

(c) Still possible to rectify the priority claim in the international phase?

Yes

 

The time limit of R.26bis.1(a) have expired (see above), but Can use R.91

 

The PCT application has been published a.s.a.p after expiry of 18m from priority:

    9/7/2021 + 18m -> 9/1/2023.

Rectification after publication is possible under R 91 PCT by requesting rectification of an obvious error.

The correction does not change the earliest priority date, so is possible – R.92.1(g)(iv)

Time limit for rectification is 9/7/2021 + 26m [R 91.2] -> 9/11/2023 Thu, 9/9/2023 Sat [R.80.5] -> 11/9/2023 (Mon), so still plenty of time. [corrected 9/3/2023]

 

Since the mistake is in the Request, submit a request for rectification of the priority application number to the EPO as rO – R 91.1(b) (i) -, specifying mistake = wrong number and rectification = correct number, referring to certified copy.

Furthermore, as a precaution for designated states whose national law requires it, request the IB to publish the details of the late correction of the priority claim and pay admin fee – R. 26bis.2(e)

 

QUESTION 3 (7 MARKS)

Answer
(a) What is the current status of the revocation proceedings for EP-C?

The proprietor, or his representative may request revocation of EP-C at any time after grant [Art 105a(1)] A revocation fee must be paid [Rfees 2(1)10a].

The request may be filed, because no opposition proceedings are pending [Art 105a(2)].

Filing of the request by fax is allowed, but debit orders must be submitted in electronic format – as filed by fax, will not be not executed [ADA2022 7.1.3]

So the date of receipt of the debit order by fax will not be regarded as the payment date [ADA2022 10.2].

Hence, the fee has not been paid, so that the request is deemed not filed. [Art 105a(1)]

 

(b) Why should company D file opposition against EP-C?

Validation in Germany is automatic as DE is London Agreement Art.1(1) - Art.65,

But renewal fees need to be paid to the German patent office to keep it in force.

Last renewal fee paid to EPO was due 30/9/2021 – Art.86(2), R.51(1).

Next renewal fee is to be paid to DE Office as after grant: is due on 30/9/2022 – Art. 141(1), Nat Law VI.A, 5.

but can still be paid with additional fee (of only 50 EUR) until 30/9/22 + 6m -> 31/3/23 - Nat Law VI.A, 5.

So may still give protection in Germany.

Note that if the renewal fee would not be paid with additional fee, the patent will lapse in DE, but that will not have retroacticve effect: the sales as of July 2022 until the lapse would still be infringing.

 

As D sells since July 2022 in Germany, D is infringing on EP-C since then (and possibly earlier - prov prot)

So that C can stop D from selling when the EP-C is valid in Germany, i.e., when renewal fees are paid, and D is liable to damages and further measures.

So, to prevent this, EP-C shall be revoked (see below)

This revocation will have retroactive effect Art.68, so that the infringement that took place is no longer relevant.

 

To revoke EP-C, company D should file an opposition before 8/06/2022 + 9m [Art 99] -> 8/03/2023 (Wed) [International Women's Day, EPO Berlin closed - OJ 2022, A107*; R.134(1)] -> 9/3/2023 (Thu) ,i.e. day after tomorrow:

- File notice with full extent, grounds, indication of facts and evidence - R.76(2)

- Pay opposition fee

 *Note: OJ 2022, A107 was only published on 30.11.2022, so after 31.10.2022 of Rule 2 & 22(1) IPREE... We included the extension in view of a comment by Gerben on our blog. Unfortunately the notice about calendars does not indicate which calendars are needed (i.e., from which year) and how to deal with the calendar of the year of the exam (usually published only after 31.10 of the year before). It may well be that answers with and without this extension are accepted. In any case, there is still time to file the opposition., so it does not impact the rest of the answer.

Assuming that the opposition is successful and the patent is revoked in opposition, this is retroactive and the effect is that the protection will never have existed [Art 68], so that company D cannot be liable for infringement.


QUESTION 4 (7 MARKS)
Answer

(a) Current status regarding the admissibility of the appeal

The period for filing the notice of appeal and paying the appeal fee expired 2m from notification of the decision [Art 108]:

19/12/2022 = 10d (R 126(2)] -> 29/12/2022 + 2m -> 28/2/2023 (Mon)

Notice of appeal of appeal was filed in time and the fee was paid on time.

The notice of appeal must contain the name and address of the appellant – R 99(1)(a)

Appellant must be an adversely affected party, so F - Art.107

Appeal filed by someone else, i.e. here E, is inadmissible - R 101(1)

Since the transfer of ownership has been recorded, and the notice is filed in the name of an incorrect appellant, transfer was effective before the EPO and the BoA will invite correction of this deficiency within a period to be specified – R 101(2).

If the deficiency is not corrected in time, the BoA will reject the appeal as inadmissible.

At present, the appeal is not yet admissible.

 

(b) Improvements

Option 1

Under G 1/12, it is allowed to "alleged that the identification is wrong due to an error, the true intention having been to file on behalf of the legal person which should have filed the appeal, is it possible to correct this error under Rule 101(2) EPC by a request for substitution by the name of the true appellant - is yes, provided the requirements of Rule 101(1) EPC have been met."

So: can correct the error in response to the invitation under Rule 101(2)

by alleging that the true appellant is F,

with the email as evidence,

and requesting to replace the name of company E by company F

Then, the appeal will be in the name of the correct person and the appeal will be admissible.

 

Option 2

Request correction straight away of own volition under R 139 EPC.

Use the email from company F as proof of true intent and the request for correction will be allowed (G 1/12).

 

Note also very recent T 1371/20 () of 16.1.2023, which seems to put the bar to show intention very low.

 

QUESTION 5 (11 MARKS)
Answer

(a) Why was PCT-G declared withdrawn? Legal consequence?

An international application shall contain an abstract – PCT Art 3(2)

A missing abstract is a deficiency under – Art 14(1)(a)(iv) and the INPI as rO invited correction [Art. 14(1)(b)] within a period of 2m – R 26.2

9/12/2022 + 2m [R. 80.2] -> 9/02/2023 (Thu).

 

The abstract was filed much later than this the rO is allowed to declare that the PCT is deemed withdrawn for failure to meet the time limit – Art. 14(1)(b); r.26.5 &R 29.1

The rO notifies the IB and the applicant and IB notifies each designated notice of the decision – R 29.1(ii).

 

No remedies are available in the in the international phase and the application PCT-G is deemed withdrawn in all designated states – Art. 24(1)(ii).

 

(b) Revive PCT-G before the EPO:

The PCT provides that any Contracting State must, as far as that State is concerned, excuse, for reasons allowed by the national law, any delay in meeting any time limit – PCT Art 24(2), Art 48(2).

 

To revive PCT-G before the EPO, request excuse and perform the following steps:

 

Enter the European phase with PCT-G a.s.a.p.

Carry out the minimum acts for entry and pay the filing fee – R 159(1)(c) EPC

Request the IB  to send copies of the documents on file – PCT Art 25(1)(a), preferably within 2m from the deemed withdrawn communication [PCT R. 51.1].

 

The failure to provide the abstract on time in the international phase would be equivalent under EPC to the failure to provide an abstract after an invitation under R. 58 / R.57(d) EPC

 

The available remedy under the EPC is reestablishment of rights - Art. 122, R 136 EPC; PCT Rule 82bis.2 - for the missed invitation time limit - PCT Rule 82bis.1 -> R.58

 

Therefore, a request for RE must be submitted to EPO - Art. 122(1); R 136 EPC.

Time limit: 2m from the removal of non-compliance – R 136(1) EPC -, 6/3/2023 when the deemed withdrawn communication was received, time time limit is:

6/03/2023 + 2m -> 6/05/2023 (Sat) extended to 8/5/2023 [R. 134(1) EPC]

By this date at the latest:

pay the fee for reestablishment [Rfees 2(1)13]

Explain why time was missed in spite of all due care

State the grounds and set out the facts in demonstration thereof – R 136(2)

If the abstract submitted on 3 March is not part of the documents on file, submit the abstract


Assuming that the request is allowed, prosecution of EURO-PCT-G can continue

 

Note: if one would argue that the removal of non-compliance took place when G filed the missing abstract with the INPI, the 2m time limit expires: 3/03/2023 + 2m -> 3/05/2023 (Wed).
However, GL E-VIII, 3.1.3  indicates that "Where the "cause of non-compliance with the time limit" involved some error in the carrying out of the party's intention to comply with the time limit, the removal of the cause of non-compliance occurs on the date on which the person responsible for the application is made aware of the fact that a time limit has not been observed or ought to have noticed the error if all due care had been taken". We consider this when the loss-of-rights was received,.
and Case Law Book III.E.4.1.1(a)(ii) indicates:
"(ii) Presumption as to date of the removal of the cause of non-compliance
If a loss-of-rights communication (R. 112(1) EPC) is served there is: (i) a presumption that removal occurs on the date of receipt of such communication; and (ii) an obligation for the recipient not to ignore it, and to take action. This presumption is, however, rebuttable, in the sense that it is valid unless, due to exceptional circumstances, the cause for non-compliance persisted (J 1/20, T 1588/15). In J 29/86 (OJ 1988, 84) the Legal Board assumed a later date in view of the special circumstances of the case. In T 900/90 the board emphasised that in all cases where the receipt of the notification R. 112(1) EPC could be regarded as the removal of the cause of non-compliance it had to be clearly established that neither the representative nor the applicant was aware that the application had been deemed to be withdrawn before the receipt of that notification". As there is no such indication, the presumption shall in our view be used that removal occurs on the date of receipt of such communication.


Note that a request for review under Art 25 (rather than excuse under Art. 24) would not be successful, since deemed withdrawal was justified.


NB: also see:

Guidelines(2022/2023) E-IX, 2.9.2 “Review by the EPO under Art. 24 PCT and excuse of delaysunder Art. 48(2) PCT”

AlsoEuro-PCT Guide (2022) 5.14.004 “Review by the EPO as designated/elected Officeunder Article 24 PCT”

 

QUESTION 6 (10 MARKS)
Answer

(a) How should EP-H be amended to provide the maximum scope of protection? Give reasons why EP-H as amended meets the requirements of Art 123 and 54 EPC.

 

Lack of novelty was raised as a ground of opposition - Art.100(a) EPC

So amendments to overcome this ground will be admissible - R.80.


Since the claim to product P lacks novelty over EP-J, this claim needs to be amended into a set of 2 independent claims:

1. the method to make product P and 

2. the use of product P as a fertilizer.


As unity and R.43(2) are not assessed in opposition, this set of claims is allowable.

 

EP-H as filed describes the method and the use and so these claims are supported and satisfy Art 123(2).

 

These amendments also satisfy the requirements of Art 123(3), because the method claim and the use claim do not increase the scope of protection.

A product claim may be replaced by a use claim – G 2/88, GL-H-V, 7.1: as the product claim P comprises all uses, limiting to the specifically disclosed use is allowed.

The product claim may also be replaced by a method claim, because the method now claimed only results in the product previously claimed – GL H-V, 7.2: as the product claim P comprises all method to make P, limiting to the specifically disclosed method is allowed.

 

EP-J discloses a different method and only discloses use as a detergent, not a fertilizer, so the new claims are also novel and satisfy Art. 54.

 

(b) How would your answer to (a) change if EP-H described product P for use as a
medicament rather than describing the use of product P as a fertiliser?

 

In this case, new claim 1 should still be directed to the method of producing product P.

 

Claim 2 should not be a “use” claim, as a claim to the use of produce P as a medicament would be excluded from patentability under Art 53(c) as a method of treatment.

 

Claim 2 should claim product P for use as a medicament – Art 54(4)

As EP-H describes product P for use as a medicament, amendment satisfies gold standard – Art. 123(2).

Claim is novel (assuming that it is the first disclosed use of P as a medicament).

The disclosure of product P in EP-J is not novelty destroying for claim 2 and a detergent cannot be considered as a medicament, so the claim is novel and satisfied Art. 54

 

The scope of protection for claim 2 is reduces from a product for any type of purposes, to a specific purpose, such that there the scope of protection is limited compared to the patent as granted and no violation of Art. 123(3).


(c) DeltaPatents, 8 March 2023


Annex 2 - The paper

EUROPEAN QUALIFYING EXAMINATION 2023
Paper D1-1


This Paper comprises:
Part I: Legal Questions
Question 1: 10 marks
Question 2: 10 marks
Question 3: 7 marks


QUESTION 1 (10 MARKS)

Applicant A filed a European patent application EP-A, which describes and claims

·       a first invention comprising two alternative solutions to a technical problem
consisting of features B+C and B+D respectively, and

·       a second invention consisting of features E+F.

The first and second inventions are not linked by a single general inventive concept.
Only the first invention was searched, and relevant prior art was found only for B+C. In
the light of the technical problem, it is directly and unambiguously apparent that
feature B is indispensable for the function of the first invention.

Applicant A filed divisional applications DIV1 and DIV2, both based directly on EP-A.
DIV1 as filed claims and describes only feature D. DIV2 as filed claims and describes
only the combination B+D+F, wherein F is presented as an optional feature.

Subsequently, the examining division issued a written decision dated 3 January 2023,
refusing EP-A on the ground that a claim directed to B+C lacked novelty.

Today, DIV1 and DIV2 are pending.


(a) Can valid patents be obtained for DIV1 and DIV2 and what should be done?

(b) Can applicant A still prosecute invention E+F and what should be done?


QUESTION 2 (10 MARKS)
On 5 May 2022, applicant B resident in France filed an international patent application
PCT-B with the EPO as receiving Office. Applicant B intended to claim priority from the
US application US-B filed by applicant B on 9 July 2021. While the priority claim in the
request of PCT-B stated the correct filing date of US-B, it included a typographical error
in one digit of the application number of US-B. The request contained a certified copy of
US-B.

The description of PCT-B includes a statement that priority is claimed from US-B
indicating the correct application number of US-B. Otherwise the description, the claims
and the drawings are identical to those of US-B.

In May 2022, applicant B received an invitation issued by the EPO as receiving Office to
correct the priority claimed in the request of PCT-B. Unfortunately, applicant B
overlooked this invitation and did not reply to it.

The EPO acting as International Searching Authority transmitted the international search
report to applicant B on 12 July 2022.


(a) Is the priority claim considered to have been made for the purposes of the procedure
under the PCT?

(b) What is the last day to file a demand for international preliminary examination?

(c) Is it still possible to rectify the priority claim in the international phase?

 

QUESTION 3 (7 MARKS)
Company C filed European patent application EP-C on 14 September 2018. The
mention of the grant of EP-C was published on 8 June 2022.

Company D is concerned about infringing EP-C with its products sold in Germany
since July 2022. Company D is preparing notice of opposition against EP-C and is
confident that it will get the patent revoked.

Today, company D consults the European Patent Register and notices that the
representative of company C sent a fax to the EPO containing both a request that
EP-C be revoked and an order to debit the revocation fee from its deposit account.
Company D also noticed that company C has not yet paid any renewal fees to the
German Patent and Trade Mark Office.


(a) What is the current status of the revocation proceedings for EP-C?

(b) Why should company D file opposition against EP-C?

 

 

EUROPEAN QUALIFYING EXAMINATION 2023
Paper D1-2


This Paper comprises:
Part I: Legal Questions
Question 4: 7 marks
Question 5: 11 marks
Question 6: 10 marks

 

QUESTION 4 (7 MARKS)
European patent EP-E was assigned from company E to company F. The transfer of
ownership was recorded in the European Patent Register in November 2022. EP-E
was revoked by a written decision of the opposition division issued on
19 December 2022.

In February 2023 you received an email from company F instructing you to file an
appeal on its behalf. On 28 February 2023 you filed notice of appeal and paid the
appeal fee.

Today, you realise that the notice of appeal was erroneously filed in the name of
company E, rather than in the name of company F.


(a) What is the current status regarding the admissibility of the appeal?

(b) How can you improve the situation?


QUESTION 5 (11 MARKS)
On 2 December 2022 Portuguese applicant G filed international patent application
PCT-G in English with the Portuguese Patent Office (INPI).

By invitation dated 9 December 2022, INPI invited G to file an abstract. Despite taking all
due care, G filed the missing abstract with INPI only on 3 March 2023.

Yesterday, G received a notification from INPI declaring PCT-G withdrawn.


(a) Why was PCT-G declared withdrawn? What will be the legal consequence of this
withdrawal in the designated states of PCT-G if nothing is done?

(b) Applicant G wants to revive PCT-G before the EPO. What procedural steps must
applicant G carry out?

 

QUESTION 6 (10 MARKS)
European patent application EP-H describes a product P, a method only resulting in
product P and a particular use of product P as a fertiliser to enhance plant growth.
EP-H was granted with a single claim to product P.

Opposition was validly filed against EP-H based on the ground of lack of novelty. The
opponent cited EP-J, a document under Article 54(3) EPC that discloses the same
product P, wherein P is obtained by a different method, and the use of product P as a
detergent.


(a) How should EP-H be amended to provide the maximum scope of protection? Give
reasons why EP-H as amended meets the requirements of Articles 123 and
54 EPC.

(b) How would your answer to (a) change if EP-H described product P for use as a
medicament rather than describing the use of product P as a fertiliser?


Comments

  1. I found the questions in D1-2 overall to be quite a bit harder than D1-1.

    Unfortunately I wasn't familiar with G 1/12 and did not manage to identify it in time in my Visser due to lack of time (and possibly a bit of stress-blindness).

    I also did not get to give a complete answer to Q5 due to lack of time - spotted the 'all due care' sentence last minute and managed to write a single sentence about the actions to take for positive review by the EPO. I certainly did not expect the review and excuse procedure in the EQE!

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. I did not find g2/12 in Visser, but some other T decisions that stated basically the same. hopefully it will give me some marks.

      Delete
    2. G 1/12 is in all reference books, usually under Rule 101(2) and Rule 139... (it is also in "Visser" - under Rule 101(1):1.2 as well as under Rule 139)

      It is also in the footnote to Rule 101 on https://www.epo.org//law-practice/legal-texts/html/epc/2020/e/r101.html

      You could also have found G 1/12 if you considered whether maybe a correction of errors under Rule 139 would be possible: see GL H-VI, 2.1 (i).

      And -if you had time to look it up in there...- in the Case Law Book V.A.2.4.1-a) and V.A.2.5.2-a):
      V. PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE BOARDS OF APPEAL
      A. Appeal procedure
      2. Filing and admissibility of the appeal
      2.4. Entitlement to appeal
      2.4.1 Formal aspects under Article 107 EPC
      a) Appeal filed by wrong company

      V. PROCEEDINGS BEFORE THE BOARDS OF APPEAL
      A. Appeal procedure
      2. Filing and admissibility of the appeal
      2.5. Form and time limit of appeal
      2.5.2 Form and content of notice of appeal (Rule 99(1) EPC)
      a) Rule 99(1)(a) EPC

      Delete
    3. I also didn't spot the G1/12 possibility to correct, but I see this would be the most optimal strategy.

      Instead I suggested to file new appeal using re-establishment as the period therefore did not expire yet. Upside is that the appeal fee of the first appeal will be reimbursed as it will be deemed inadmissible as it is filed by a party not entitled to appeal (E), G1/18; downside is that we have to show all due care for which there was no indication in the question.
      I anyways hope this strategy also attracts some points at least.

      Thomas

      Delete
    4. If you would not know about G 1/12, you could have tried to built your own argumentation on the specific R.101(2) remedy (invitation) and/or general correction provision R.139.

      Delete
  2. I had a technical problem:
    Wiseflow did not show any questions in Paper D1 at the beginning just an error message. I called EPO and tried contacting the invigilaror.

    The invigilator didnt get back to me until about 15 min into the exam.

    I know some people got a warning message that this may happen and that they should refresh the page- I never received this.

    I'm really quite unhappy with how this was handled.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. I had a similar problem and lost around 25 mins in total, and filed a detailed complaint on the day.

      The stress associated with this absolutely broke me. I took part in all the technical tests, and had no technical issues during the pre-EQE last year, during paper A on Thursday, or when practicing past papers on the compendium, with the exact same system in the exact same configuration.

      I did not receive any message when entering the flow or for the 25 mins I was waiting to enter watching the clock count down telling me to refresh. When I entered the flow I saw an 'empty' environment, with messages saying no assignments could not be retrieved and that no invigilators could be contacted using the chat box. Due to issues in past years with the system crashing and throwing people out due to e.g. illegal key combinations, I did not want to try to solve the issue by "pressing buttons", in case it made it even worse.

      I e-mailed the helpdesk and did not receive a quick reply. I then called the helpdesk, which due to difficulties wasted even more time.

      I feel well and truly let down, and am really upset by this situation. I genuinely do not think I missed a notification, and am usually quite observant. Talking to colleagues who sat paper D in 2021 (when the questions were initially only available in German) it seems that I lost even more time due to this situation than they did then.

      For now, I am doing my best to focus on papers B and C next week. I will revisit paper D when results come out - I am expecting to need to resit it due to the technical issues that were not my fault.

      In short, I am also really quite unhappy with how this was handled.

      Delete
    2. Edit: saying no assignments could be retrieved.

      Delete
  3. I don't fully agree with the answers to Q5 above (I was also a bench marker this year): the invitation to file the abstract is indeed sent under R. 26.2 PCT; however as for the second part of the question, I found Art. 25 & 26 the relevant Articles as well as possibly R. 51, see also: https://xepc.eu/node/e_ix_2_9_1:
    'The EPO may decide, in accordance with Art. 25 PCT, to allow an international application deemed to be withdrawn to proceed as a European application.[Art. 25 PCT; Rules 51; 82ter PCT; Rule 159(2); ]
    To obtain such a review by the EPO as designated Office, applicants must take the following steps within the two-month time limit under Rule 51.1 PCT:
    – request the IB to send copies of documents in the files promptly to the EPO as designated Office,
    – pay the filing fee under Rule 159(1)(c) and, where required,
    – furnish a translation of the Euro-PCT application.
    Applicants are recommended to undertake the remaining steps for entry into the European phase under Rule 159(1) at the same time, possibly together with a request for early processing (see E‑IX, 2.8).'

    The Art. 48 excuse only applies for interruption in the mail service or unavoidable loss or delay in mail, which was not the case here (here: 'despite all due care' the abstract was not filed on time; no mention of lost mail etc.)

    R. 58 refers to 'European patent application', but this is not that just yet.

    I also recommended to do early entry to the EP phase & to apply for a consequent re-establishment under Art. 122 EPC, but it actually seems from the above link that the latter is not necessary to do.. :-)

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. (How) did you consider:

      Guidelines E-IX, 2.9.2 Review by the EPO under Art. 24 PCT and excuse of delays under Art. 48(2) PCT:
      "Pursuant to Art. 24(2) PCT, the EPO as designated/elected Office may maintain the application as a European application even if this is not required by virtue of Art. 25(2) PCT (see also OJ EPO 1984, 565, Reasons 4). The filing of a request under Art. 24(2) PCT is governed by the same requirements as a request for review under Art. 25(2) PCT (see E‑IX, 2.9.1), with the exception that the two-month time limit under Rule 51 PCT does not apply (see J 19/16, Reasons 6). Such requests may have to be combined with a request for re-establishment of rights under Art. 122 or further processing under Art. 121 (see E‑VIII, 2 and E‑VIII, 3) as the appropriate means of remedying the non-observance of a time limit under the EPC."

      Euro-PCT Guide 5.14.004:
      "Pursuant to Article 24(2) PCT the EPO as designated/elected Office may even maintain the application as a European application if this is not required by virtue of the provision in Article 25(2) PCT. The filing of a request under Article 24(2) PCT is governed by the same requirements as a request for review under Article 25(2) PCT, with the exception that the two-month time limit under Rules 51.1 and 51.3 PCT does not apply. The time limit for making a request to be excused under Article 24(2) PCT is subject to national law. Such request may be combined with a request for re-establishment of rights or further processing."

      Delete
    2. I personally didn’t consider this much - I concentrated on Art. 25 and GL E-IX, 2.9.1 (I established in the first part that it is indeed deemed to have been withdrawn however the filing date was established and is not affected by the withdrawal) but maybe I should’ve considered Art. 24 PCT as well :-)

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    3. Dear Sonja,
      Art 48(1) PCT relates to missed time limits due "mail difficulties".
      Art 48(2) allows any State to excuse for reasons admitted under its national law, any delay in meeting any time limit.
      It would be possible to submit a request for review under Art 25 to the EPO, but this can only lead to revival of the application if the EPO finds that the "deemed withdrawn" communication was unjustified. In this case it was not, so a request for excuse must be submitted.

      Delete
    4. Oh nice - I learn something new every day! :) thanks Diane!

      Delete
  4. We have added our complete D1 answer to the blog post, at the end.

    ReplyDelete
  5. Due to technical issues caused by the questions not appearing at the start of the flow and resulting lack of time i rushed q3 and made an embarrassing mistake. Could you comment on the possibility of marks being subtracted from the paper as a whole following the “not fit to practice” doctrine (on top of the marks i obviously lost in q3). Even though based on the answers from Delta i should still have enough marks to pass, I am now worried.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. If you had technical issues and seek for compensation for time missed, you should have filed a complaint before midnight on the day of the D paper.

      Paper D is based on a positive marking scheme, so there is no subtraction of marks (but they may not seek for one more mark if your scores end up at 44 and you made too severe errors).

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    2. Yeah i did file a complaint using the dedicated form. I had the same issue as many others posted here (questions not appearing) so hopefully a lot of people did as well, in order to achieve some critical mass. The tiny collapsible warning that was available in the flow was definitely no sufficient given the fact that people would be frantically trying to find a solution (+ the response time of invigilators was slow)

      Delete
  6. For question 4, do you not also need to file the statement of grounds for the appeal to be admissible as well as correct the appellant? I interpreted the correction also needs to be filed prior to filing the grounds (There is a T decision regarding grounds and notice filed by different people being inadmissible). JW

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Yes, you need the grounds at some moment. But "today" the period to file the grounds did not yet expire, so I would not expect it to be part of the answer to a).

      By the way, the Q does not say that the grounds were field by a different person.

      Delete
  7. Regarding Q. 3, you mention:
    "To revoke EP-C, company D should file an opposition before 8/06/2022 + 9m [Art 99] -> 8/03/2023,i.e. tomorrow:
    - File notice with full extent, grounds, indication of facts and evidence - R.76(2)
    - Pay opposition fee"

    Should that not be 09.03.2023, i.e., the day after tomorrow, as the Berlin Office is closed on 8 March, International Women's Day [R. 134(1), OJ2022, A107]?

    And as the question merely asks WHY you should file an opposition, I think the information as to how should not be required (and I didn't include it)

    It also seems I inadvertently referenced an old version of the ADA, with different articles numbering (though the same content), so I guess I'll miss the marks for the legal basis there

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Oeps, yes, we overlooked the Berlin closure, so you are correct. I will correct it in our answer. Thx Gerben!

      Delete
    2. The D committee always make remarks about candidates not using up-date-date legal texts...

      Delete
    3. Note that OJ 2022, A107 was only published in 30.11.2022, so after 31.10.2022 and hence not part of the EQE2023 syllabus. So it seems fair that both answers, with and without considering the closure, are accepted.

      Delete
    4. If you follow that reasoning, it would seem that in DII also both answers with and without the extension form Sat 06.05.2023 to Mon 08.05.2023 (comment by Anonymous, 8 March 2023 at 12:08) should be accepted, as the Sat/Sun closure is mentioned in the same OJ article, isn't it?

      Although, now that I am thinkig about it: I think the Sat/Sun closure is also in the PCT Applicant's Guide, so if you would recommend filing a PCT application, it could be argued that you should know the EPO is closed on Sat/Sun

      Delete
    5. Yes, you can know that EPO is always closed on Sat and Sun.

      But it is also what OJ 2022, A107 says - that would be the true legal basis for that closure, as R.134(1) itself does not explicit say sO:

      OJ 2022, A107, item 2:
      "2. In 2023, as hitherto, the EPO's filing offices in Munich, The Hague and Berlin will be closed for the receipt of documents on every Saturday and Sunday. The other closing days in 2023 are listed below."

      https://www.epo.org/law-practice/legal-texts/official-journal/2022/11/a107.html

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    6. Yes, but you just argued that, strictly speaking, OJ2022, A107 was not part of the syllabus, and as far as I know, that article is the legal basis for knowing that the EPO is closed on Sat/Sun.

      Delete
    7. Agreed. So now strict are you expected to be? And what is the effect of the calendars not being part of the peper, and the OJ of Nov
      20222 not being past of the syllabus for EQE 2023, for Sat/Sun in 2023 nor for other closure dates in 2023 (such as 8/3/2023 for Berlin)?

      Delete
  8. Regarding Question 2c. I might be incorrect as my brain is mush after the two exams but I think the time limit for rectification is 9/7/2021+ 26m [R 91.2] -> 9/9/2023 and not 9/11/2023.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Thx!

      Some limits are difficult... I always do 18 when I need to to 16, and this is a similar error... which two of us made, so that we did not spot it ;)

      I will correct it in our answer above, to prevent possible confusion.

      Delete
    2. NB: 9/9/2023 is a Saturday, so extends to 11/9/2023 [R.80.5]

      Delete
  9. Q5: On the one hand it appears that the IA can be declared withdrawn as you describe above for Q5, but on the other hand there is a provision in R 38 and 44.2 PCT where the ISA should establish the abstract themselves... “Under PCT procedure, it is the exclusive competence of the ISA to determine the contents of the abstract and to establish an abstract where one is missing (PCT Rules 38 and 44.2)”, https://www.wipo.int/pct/en/newslett/practical_advice/pa_042017.html
    I relied upon that provision and could not find a reason why the IA should be withdrawn.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. In our answer, we give PCT Art. 14(1)(b) as the core provision for the reason why:

      PCT Article 14 Certain Defects in the International Application
      (1)(a) The receiving Office shall check whether the international application contains any of the following defects, that is to say:
      (i) it is not signed as provided in the Regulations;
      (ii) it does not contain the prescribed indications concerning the applicant;
      (iii) it does not contain a title;
      (iv) IT DOES NOT CONTAIN AN ABSTRACT;
      (v) it does not comply to the extent provided in the Regulations with the prescribed physical requirements.
      (b) If the receiving Office finds any of the said defects, ii SHALL INVITE the applicant to correct the international application within the prescribed time limit, FAILING WHICH THAT APPLICATION SHALL BE CONSIDERED WITHDRAWN AND THE RECEIVING OFFICE SHALL SO DECLARE.

      In the PCT, as well as in the EPC, the applicant has to initially provide an abstract, but the abstract is in the end owned by the search examiner: the search examiner adapts it so that it serves its main function best = to provide a ~150-word abstract that give sufficient info to search examiners and third parties as to whether they need to read the whole application or not.

      Delete
  10. Does anyone have the complete question 1? I seemed to have not read the refusal part at all!

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. QUESTION 1 (10 MARKS)

      Applicant A filed a European patent application EP-A, which describes and claims

      · a first invention comprising two alternative solutions to a technical problem
      consisting of features B+C and B+D respectively, and

      · a second invention consisting of features E+F.

      The first and second inventions are not linked by a single general inventive concept.
      Only the first invention was searched, and relevant prior art was found only for B+C. In
      the light of the technical problem, it is directly and unambiguously apparent that
      feature B is indispensable for the function of the first invention.

      Applicant A filed divisional applications DIV1 and DIV2, both based directly on EP-A.
      DIV1 as filed claims and describes only feature D. DIV2 as filed claims and describes
      only the combination B+D+F, wherein F is presented as an optional feature.

      Subsequently, the examining division issued a written decision dated 3 January 2023,
      refusing EP-A on the ground that a claim directed to B+C lacked novelty.

      Today, DIV1 and DIV2 are pending.


      (a) Can valid patents be obtained for DIV1 and DIV2 and what should be done?

      (b) Can applicant A still prosecute invention E+F and what should be done?

      Delete
  11. Thanks for also annexing the paper to the blog post!

    ReplyDelete
  12. The Examiner's Report is available!

    From the Examiner's Report (capitalization added):

    "In part I, full marks are only awarded when the full legal basis is cited to support the analysis.
    Candidates lost many marks due to missing or incomplete legal basis. THE EXAMINERS NOTE
    THAT THIS ISSUE HAS BECOME MORE ACUTE IN RECENT YEARS, WITH THE 2023 ANSWERS SHOWING AN
    ALL-TIME LOW IN THE CITATION OF LEGAL BASIS FROM E.G. THE GUIDELINES AND CASE LAW. It is noted that
    “answering legal question” as is the purpose of Part I, REQUIRES NOT ONLY UNDERSTANDING THE
    LEGAL PROVISIONS, BUT ALSO BEING ABLE TO CITE THE CORRECT LEGAL BASIS FOR THE ANSWERS.

    Citing only the legal basis or repeating the text therefrom without any further explanation,
    reasoning or providing advice generally does not attract any marks. However, alternative
    relevant legal basis not mentioned in the possible solution also attracted marks. It is noted in
    this respect that the online examination with direct access to part of the syllabus in electronic
    form, appears to be seen as an invitation to copy articles, rules and paragraphs from the
    guidelines, FOR WHICH FULL MARKS ARE ONLY AWARDED IF, APART FROM THE COPIED TEXT, THE EXPLANATION
    IS ALSO PROVIDED IN VIEW OF THE SITUATION IN THE QUESTION"

    ReplyDelete

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